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   Integral 0 to infinity e^(-x2)dx ? Here's a nice trick..
posted on 20 Jan 2012 20:04:03 IST    509 views    1 comments
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Why?

Well, there isn't a closed-form expression for the antiderivative of the integrand, so the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus won't help.

But the expression is meaningful, since the it represents the area under the curve from 0 to infinity.

Furthermore, there is a nice trick to find the answer!

Call the integral I. Multiply the integral by itself: this gives

I2 =

then view as an integral over the first quadrant in the plane:

I2

then change to polar coordinates (!):


Now this is quite easy to evaluate: you find that

.

This means that I, the original value of the integral you were looking for, is . Wow!

 

Source:

http://www.math.hmc.edu/funfacts/ffiles/20008.3.shtml

About the Author:
Vishal U. Karve (205)

Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.  41  [41 rates]

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Sumiran agrawal is offline comment by Sumiran agrawal      (posted on 22 Jan 2012 19:38:03 IST)
    Really, its nice vishal!!!!
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